I am looking for written documentation regarding the following scenario please:

Pt. is seen in E.R. by Ortho physician & physician documents that ankle fx is too swollen to go to the O.R. Pt. will be scheduled at a later date after swelling subsides. The physician is wanting to bill for an E.R. visit and closed treatment of the ankle fx even though he documents that the pt. will be going to surgery after the swelling subsides. To me, this is "double dipping". So I’m looking for written documention for this scenario please. Any help/guidance/info would be muchly appreciated! TIA