Hi. I am preparing for the CPC exam and there is a case study in my AAPC Study Guide that I am hoping someone can help me with. The rationale at the end of the text does not answer the following question:

I have a case scenario where a woman had twins. She had the first baby vaginally and the second baby was delivered by cesarean due to complications. I am wondering why the cesarean delivery is coded first with the vaginal delivery coded second. What are the guidelines regarding sequencing for this type of scenario? Is it because the cesarean-section reimburses at a higher rate? Also, if anyone could direct me to other guidelines regarding CPT sequencing I would like to review these for the exam. Thanks so much!

Rachel