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Click here for more sample CPC practice exam questions and answers with full rationale

high risk sexual behavior

I work for a family practice facility. They say they have standing orders for certain diseases (HIV, HEPATITIS C, ETC) for certain patient in between ages 20 something to their 40’s or 50’s. They are giving them high risk sexual behavior diagnosis. I don’t think this should be used especially if their notes state they aren’t sexually active or have only had 1 partner in the last 5 to 10 years. Can someone help me with this?

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