Hi y’all,
I am getting mixed answers to a question. If an ESTABLISHED patient comes into their family Dr and has to have a PREOP CLEARANCE is it ok to bill a consult code (99242–99245)??? I was always taught this was not allowed, that they can bill an higher established level. They insist I am wrong. Can someone give me a definitive answer with reasoning why??
I am getting mixed answers to a question. If an ESTABLISHED patient comes into their family Dr and has to have a PREOP CLEARANCE is it ok to bill a consult code (99242–99245)??? I was always taught this was not allowed, that they can bill an higher established level. They insist I am wrong. Can someone give me a definitive answer with reasoning why??
THANKS!!!
😀