Per op report:
"…A marked amount of arthritis at the trapezial
carpometacarpal joint was identified. The trapezium was
osteotomized in 3 places with an osteotome, and the bone was
removed in fragments completely. The wound was irrigated with
antibiotic solution. With a 1.5 mm double-stranded labral tape,
we placed the anchor into the articular base of the second
metacarpal, strung it across the base of the metacarpal, and
then placed a second anchor very snugly with the double
stranded 1.5 mm labral tape into the lateral portion of the
metacarpal base. This suspended the metacarpal and stabilized
it completely, with good positioning and no evident subluxing.
We then irrigated again and placed some antibiotic-soaked
Gelfoam in the space of the trapezium, did a very tight
capsular repair with 3-0 Mersilene sutures, mattresses, and
then closed the skin subcuticular with Monocryl…"

Would this be a 25447 even though no tendon transfers are mentioned as performed?
If 25447 is the most appropriate code, should a -52 be appended?

Thanks,
Aubrey CPC, CRC, COC