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Getting Through an Operative Report, Without Crying

One of the things I love about the mentoring I do for coding students is it reminds me of what it was like to be a newbie. And I don’t just mean the excitement of being on the cusp of a new coding career. I am also grateful to be humbled and reminded that I […]

The post Getting Through an Operative Report, Without Crying appeared first on AAPC Knowledge Center.

AAPC Knowledge Center

Surgical Coding of an Operative Report

When coding for an operative report, from what sources can you pull ICD-10 information? You can use the operative report itself as well as any information from the related pathology report but can you use other sources, such as the H&P, another provider’s notes, previous pathology and/or op reports, etc?
And please provide information from a documented source rather than opinion as this information is needed for research by a compliance department.
Thank you

Medical Billing and Coding Forum

Still an Abscess, or Non-Healing Operative Wound?

Wound care coding question! I’ve been working on educating the physicians I work with on ICD10 since it became effective. There has been a constant ongoing debate between the three of them as to what diagnosis to use in a particular situation involving abcesses. When an abscess is incised and drained, and they are referred to us for treatment because the wound will not heal, one physician wants to now call the abscess a nonhealing operative wound because they state they’ve had surgery, while the other two say it’s still an abscess.I have posted the question in social media coder groups. When it was suggested that we go with the diagnosis on the referral, I have suggested that to the doctors and, unfortunately, the referrals basically state "wound care", "wound left foot" or "wound abdomen" – they dont’ specify what type of wound. I need help to settle this matter once and for all. Any documentation that I can provide them is greatly appreciated, as I have researched and cannot find anything definitive.

Medical Billing and Coding Forum

CPT help with Operative report….I’m stumped

I have an operative report for a procedure that my providers did for one of my patient’s, and I cannot figure out how to go about coding this one.

PREOPERTIVE DIAGNOSIS: Uterine perforation with hemoperitoneum.

POSTOPERATIVE DIAGNOSIS: Uterine perforation with hemoperitoneum.

DESCRIPTION OF PROCEDURE: Operative laparoscopy with coagulation of bleeding perforation site and evacuation of 600 mL of hemoperitoneum.

The doctor sent me a message regarding the procedure:

Pt was seen for acute abdomen, transfused blood. CT showed hemoperitoneum- active bleed from uterine defect. We did diagnostic laparoscopy (open), evacuated hemoperitoneum, coagulated uterine defect/bleeder, pt left same day in the afternoon.

I thought about possibly using code 59151, but I am not sure that is correct. Any help would be much appreciated!!

Medical Billing and Coding

Needing help with operative note – orthopedic

Procedures performed: Left subtalar joint arthrodesis with an iliac crest bone graft

Implants: Paragon 28, 7.0mm cannulated screws and Trinity bone graft substitute

Indication:
Pt has a history of two surgical interventions on the hindfoot and had persistent swelling, pain, and CT evidence of profound arthrosis in the subtalar joint.

Description of Procedure:
A sinus tarsi approach was used to access the subtalar joint. An incision was made starting at the tip of the fibula extending distally toward the fourth toe. Sin and subcutaneous tissue were sharply incised. The peroneal tendon was found dislocated away from its typical position. It was protected. The extensor digitorum brevis muscle belly was split in the subtalar joint was exposed. It was opened with a lamina spreader without teeth and then with a k-wiredistractor. The subtalar joint revealed abundant subchondral cyst formation as well as sclerotic hard bone and really rather profound changes. A chisel, osteotome, curette, and burr were used to debride the joint back to cancellous appearing services. The entire joint was repaired until the flexor halluces tlongus was visualized moving deep across the subtalar joint. Numerous channels were drilled in the bone in order to facilitate bony fusion. Once the joint had been adequately prepared, incision was then made along the anterior iliac crest starting at the anterior superior iliac spine. The skin and subcutaneous tissue were sharply incised. The crest was exposed and then a bone graft core harvester reamer was used to take two cores of autograft followed by a curette used to take additional autograft. The area between the tables was then filled up with cancellous chips as well as thrombin Gelfoam and then the fascia was closed followed by meticulous closure of subcutaneous tissue and skin. Sterile dressing was applied. Attention was then directed back toward the subtalar joint where the autograft as well as Trinity bone graft substitute was placed in the subtalar joint. Using intraoperative mini c-arm, a guidewire was then placed in the heel across the subtalar joint into the talus. Lateral views as well as Harris heel view and AP ankle was used in order to assess positioning of the screw. Two screws were placed in order to secure solid fixation of the subtalar joint. Both these screws had excellent purchase and then assessed the subtalar joint, it was nice and clinicall stable; however, there was room for additional bone graft substitute, therefore we placed another millitliter of Trinity followed by cancellous chips in order to close down all the dead space. We then meticulously closed the incision in layers. Sterile dressings and a splint were applied. The patient tolerated the procedure well ….

When it comes to feet – I find this is difficult! I realize the 28725 for subtalar arthrodesis, but am having trouble with the iliac crest autograft and bone substitute how to code or if included? The physician’s nurse put down 20970, but I think that is over and beyond what he did.

Could you please review and give me your opinions? I really appreciate your time!

Medical Billing and Coding

spinal instrumentation insertion and removal within same operative session

help !!

my surgeon has input bilateral pedicle screws at l2-l3 and has then removed the right side screws due to them migrating during the surgery . the dr is wanting to bill 22840 for the insertion and then also 20680 for the removal. I know am almost 100% positive 20680 is a completely wrong code and i really don’t think you can bill for that removal since its within the same session. i am having trouble finding anything in black an white to discuss with my dr. if anyone can please provide me some links or any insight would be appreciated

thank you

Medical Billing and Coding | AAPC Forum

Post operative bleeding- HELP!!!

I have a case were the doctor had to take a patient back to the operating room after an anterior colporrhaphy due to bleeding. I can not for the life of me figure out what code to use. I know I can bill it with modifier 78 but can decide what the most accurate code is for the repair. Please help!!! The op report…

PREOPERATIVE DIAGNOSIS:
Postoperative vaginal bleeding.
POSTOPERATIVE DIAGNOSIS:
Postoperative bleeding from anterior colporrhaphy site.
NAME OF OPERATION:
Examination under anesthesia.
Inspection of anterior colporrhaphy site with identification of bleeders and ligation of same, and resuture of anterior
vaginal wall.
SURGEON:

SURGICAL TECHNIQUES:
With the patient in the lithotomy position under general anesthesia, she was prepped and draped. A Bakri balloon
had been placed for compression in the vaginal vault. This was removed. Attention was directed to the anterior
vaginal wall. Retractors were placed. The vaginal cuff was carefully examined, found to be intact. There was no
evidence of active bleeding. Likewise, the posterior vaginal incision sites were also carefully inspected and found to
be intact with no bleeding. While there was no gross bleeding anteriorly, there was distension of the cystocele
incision. Therefore, the interrupted sutures holding the anterior vaginal mucosa together were excised and the
anterior vaginal incision was opened. Blood and clots were expressed and bleeding sites were found laterally on the
right and left with the right being more predominate. Figure-of-eight sutures were used to obtain complete
hemostasis. The site was irrigated with saline and observed for an extended period of time to ensure that all bleeding
sites had been identified and ligated. After ensuring that the surgical bed was dry, the vaginal mucosa was then
reapproximated with interrupted suture of double-0 Vicryl. All areas were again reinspected, found to be hemostatic.
Instruments and sponges were then removed and the patient was sent to the recovery room in good postoperative
condition.
GROSS FINDINGS:
The patient had a postoperative bleeder beneath the mucosa of the anterior vaginal incision which was the part of her
previous cystocele repair.

I can’t decide if a repair code would be appropriate like 12031. Any guidance would be much appreciated.

Medical Billing and Coding Forum | AAPC