I may be going down the rabbit hole
its late in the day and I might be overthinking, but here goes
A provider is documentation actinic keratosis and ICD guidelines state that a source is needed. This source is not documented. He has also coded 17000 as well as 17003. Past medical history states no personal history of skin cancer, which may very well be.
I maintain that these are to be coded as lesion and the removal of benign lesions should be used unless there is further evidence in the documentation to prove otherwise.
Please opine. I am new to the derm world, be gentle.