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Billing 99282 when patient was not seen by a doctor

There is a patient calling us because she is being billed 99282 when she never saw a doctor. She waited in the waiting room for 3 hours and never saw a doctor so she left. Our doctor wants to charge her 99282 and she is fighting it, rightfully so. Can someone confirm that we are not allowed to do this, and if so, provide a website or proof that we can’t?

Medical Billing and Coding Forum