Can a doctor of osteopathy bill for chiropractic manipulations (98940-98942)? I know that CPT/AMA does not define the word "provider" and refers you back to your state guidelines (I’m in PA) and that the outcome of chiropractic manipulations is different than the outcome of osteopathic manipulation. So if the desired outcome by the DO does fit within the chiropractic manipulation outcome vs. osteopathic, is he then within his rights to bill it? Technically, he is over-qualified to bill the code if looking at provider-type.
Per Michael Miscoe on an AAPC Webinar:
– Chiropractic Principles focus on restoring joint position to influence neurologic function on the premise that normal neurologic function will allow the body to effectively heal itself.
– The Osteopathic outlook simply looks to influence organ system function through correction of joint dysfunction (less stated emphasis on the neurologic component even though correction of the somatic problem relies on neurologic function).