A patient was originally seen about a year ago and provided no insurance information. They made a couple small payments on the 2 bills over the course of a year. Then, they called almost a full year after originally seen and, "Oh! Here’s my insurance – bill it, please!"

Ugh.

So we did. And they denied it as being wellllllllll past timely. (I’ll give you a minute to get over your shock.)

So… can we bill the patient for this because they DID NOT give us that info timely and we can back that up if need be?

We’re having a differing of opinions here. If you say we can, please provide a link to some sort of reference for this.

Thanks!