I’m trying to determine if this is correct. The patient underwent 46040 a few days ago and due to the complexity of the abscess, they brought the patient back to the OR to perform washout and placement of a JP drain to facilitate healing.

Would I still report 11004 if he’s not actually documenting any debridement?? How do you capture revenue for bringing the patient back to the OR if he’s basically just performing wound care under anesthesia?

Op report states:
we prepped and draped the area and after our final verification we proceeded. We washed out the wound copiously with saline. We then again identified the tracking down towards the perineum close to the perianal area.
Due to the complexity of the wound and tracking, as well as difficulty with packing, I elected to leave a Penrose drain by making a small counterincision slightly into the perianal area. I made a small counterincision a couple of inches away from the already existing scrotal wound. I passed a one-inch Penrose through the deepest part of the already existing abscess cavity and once I did that we secured hemostasis. We washed out the wound further. I secured the Penrose on itself so it was looped and then placed some one-inch packing into both wounds. There were no other complications. We placed a dry gauze as well as a scrotal support and the patient tolerated the procedure well. He was taken out of lithotomy and extubated