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How would you code this regarding MDM?

Looking for help regarding this visit and the appropriate E/M level regarding MDM.

Visit has a detailed history and expanded pf exam, and I am thinking a Moderate MDM for a 99214.
My questions are regarding the three elements of MDM.

This is the Impression and Plan Summary:
PAIN IN RIGHT ARM – New.
Orders: US: extremity – right – non vascular.

BICEPS TENDON RUPTURE – New. Ultrasound reveals bicep tendon tear Ortho referral made. May use ibuprofen 800mg PO TID otc prn pain. Medication education provided including possible side effects.

Here are my questions:
1) would the pain in right arm dx count as a moderate level in the table of risk as an Undiagnosed new problem with uncertain prognosis? (Also my boss had mentioned that 2 new problems equal Moderate Risk but I can’t find documentation for that)
2) Does the provider get 2 data points? One point for ordering the US for the pain in arm, and one point for reviewing the US for the bicep tendon tear?

I would appreciate any input regarding this to further my knowledge and understanding regarding MDM and this type of scenario.
TIA
KM

Medical Billing and Coding Forum

need help with this surgery cpt codes

1. Emergent exploratory sternotomy.
2. Cardiopulmonary bypass with bicaval cannulation.
3.Excision of the Right Ventricular wall pseudoaneurysm .
4.. Repair of the right ventricular inferior wall using 2 layers ( first being a horizontal mattress closure and a second over an over layer ). and VSD closure ( with same suture line).

INDICATIONS FOR THE PROCEDURE
This is a 63-year-old patient with not known history of coronary artery disease who complained of chest pain. She came to the Emergency Room on 01/04/2019. She was ruled in for an ST elevation acute myocardial infarction . The patient went to the catheterization lab and a coronary angiogram was done, which showed a preserved left ventricular function, totally occluded right coronary artery. A PCI with stent placement of the right coronary artery was performed successfully with an opening with placement of the stents in the distal right coronary artery and flow in the PDA. However, the patient became unstable, at that point, with signs of acute pulmonary edema, which was difficult to explain based on the coronary angiogram finding. A transthoracic echo was performed which showed a possibility of a right ventricular wall dissection with impending rupture and the possibility of a ventricular septal defect as a complication of the acute myocardial infarction. The patient’s blood pressure was in the 90s, heart rate 130-140. She became dyspneic with significant shortness of breath on oxygen. Cardiac surgery was consulted, I reviewed the echo as well as coronary angiogram with and a decision was made to bring the patient emergently to the operating room. The patient was intubated in the CCU in preparation for her surgery.

PROCEDURE IN DETAIL
The patient was brought to the operating room and laid in a supine position on the table. She was prepped and draped in the usual sterile fashion after antibiotics were given. The chest was opened through a standard median sternotomy and then very cautiously opened the pericardium. There was some bloody fluid, but not obvious blood and no signs of acute bleeding. The patient was heparinized intravenously. I examined the heart and I noticed that the inferior wall of the right ventricle had a large area affected by an acute myocardial infarction. This involved of the area adjacent to the diaphragm.( inferior wall ). The anterior wall seems to be normal, unaffected by the myocardial infarction. Basically the area affected was between an acute marginal branch and the PDA. I could hear a significant thrill just by palpating that area. I also noticed that the wall was extremely thin, so it was a communication with at least one of the ventricles, the right ventricle but possible the LV also, creating a VSD.

The aorta was cannulated with a 21-French aortic cannula, the superior vena cava with a 30-French venous cannula and the IVC with a 32-French venous cannula.

Cardiopulmonary bypass was commenced without any hemodynamic problems. The aorta was cross-clamped and 800 mL of cold blood cardioplegia were given through the aortic root. This arrested the heart in diastole without any distention. Again, I examined the heart very carefully. I could not see anything abnormal except this inferior wall of the right ventricle, again between the acute marginal and the PDA; This area was beefy red and very thin on a couple of the places in a way that I could visualize the blood through the epicardium. Appeared like an impending rupture of the RV. Based on those specific findings, I decided to open the right ventricle through the pseudoaneurysm. The incision was from cranial to caudal (toward the apex). I was able to open the pseudoaneurysm chamber of the right ventricle, which seems to communicated with the right ventricle. may also had a communication with the left ventricle but it was difficult to find it because of the anatomy created by the RV wall dissection. This might have been the reason why it seems that there was a ventricular septal defect on the transthoracic echo. The pseudoaneurysm area was fairly well defined, so I decided to open it, excise the portion which was obviously not viable ( resection of the pseudoaneurysm sac ). Then, I very carefully opened the right ventricle and inspected visually and by palpation, the septum all the way from the tricuspid valve, including under the leaflets and to the apex. I could not see any ventricular septal defect and actually the septum did not seem to be involved in the acute myocardial infarction. As I mentioned before, the communication might have been betwen the LV and the pseudoaneurysm sac. After the debridement and excision of the pseudoaneurysm I did a careful inspection of the inside of the right ventricle, and not finding anything abnormal except the area affected by acute myocardial infarction, I decided to close the right ventricular wall in a way that the area of dissection and possible communication with LV was securely closed . This was done in 2 layers, the first layer was a horizontal mattress using 3-0 Prolene with pledgets on both sides. The second layer was an over and over layer again with a Teflon felt on top of the suture line. In this way, the suture line was protected with three rows of a Teflon felt; one to the left and one to the right, and one on top of the suture line.

The patient was positioned in Trendelenburg with the vent on and the crossclamp was removed. Two temporary pacer wires were attached to the right atrium and right ventricle and the patient was paced AI with a rate of 80 per minute. Then the lungs were ventilated. The patient was rewarmed and then the patient was weaned off cardiopulmonary bypass without the need of any inotropic support. The heparin was reversed with protamine and the venous and aortic cannula were removed.

Potential bleeding sites including closure of the right ventricular and cannulation sites were checked. There was no significant bleeding. Considering the fact the patient was given 180 mg of Brilinta in the cath lab with the PCI procedure, I administered 2 units of platelets to avoid postop bleeding.

Two chest tubes were placed using 19-French Blake drains. The sternum was closed with stainless steel wires. The linea alba and presternal fascia with #1 Vicryl suture, the skin with 3-0 Monocryl. Sterile dressing was applied. The patient tolerated the procedure well and left the Operating Room in stable condition.

Medical Billing and Coding Forum

Pls help with coding of this surgery

Postoperative Diagnosis:
1. Unruptured large left posterior wall internal carotid artery aneurysm
2. Left eye temporal visual field cut.

Procedures Performed:
DIAGNOSTIC CEREBRAL ANGIOGRAPHY:
1. Percutaneous transarterial access of the right common femoral artery under direct sonographic guidance, continuous image interpretation and permanent image registration.
2. Right common femoral arteriography
3. Selective catheterization of the right common carotid artery.
4. Right common carotid artery cervical angiogoraphy, AP and lateral views.
5. Right common carotid artery cerebral angiography, AP and lateral views.
6. Selective catheterization of the left common carotid artery.
7. Left common carotid artery cervical angiography, AP and lateral views.
8. Selective catheterization and cerebral angiography, left internal carotid artery, cranial views, AP and lateral.
9. Left internal carotid artery rotational angiography with 3D post processing reconstruction on a separate workstation.
10. Left internal carotid cerebral angiography, magnified views working angles #1.
11. Left internal carotid artery cerebral angiography, magnified views working angles #2 (RAO2, CAUD17; RAO9, CAUD 17)
12. Left internal carotid artery cerebral angiography, post embolization magnified working angles #2.
13. Left internal carotid artery cerebral angiography, cranial views, AP and lateral.
14. Translational fluoroscopic image acquisition with post-processing reconstruction into computed tomography angiography ( Stent protocol ).

ENDOVASCULAR NEUROSURGERY:
1. Transcatheter, transluminal, transarterial Pipeline flow diversion of a posterior carotid wall left internalcarotid artery aneurysm.

My coding:
Diagnostic Angiography:
36140
76937
75710
36223-50
36224
75898 – for proc 9
76377 – for proc 9
75898 – for proc 10
75898 – for proc 11
75898 – for proc 12
75898 – for proc 13
????? – for proc 14

Endovascular Neurosurgery:
61624

Is the above coding correct?

Thx
Ken

Medical Billing and Coding Forum

Is this okay?

Situation:
A self- pay patient is seen for annual well woman, and also gets Mirena removal and insertion of new IUD all at the same encounter. The encounter ends up being very expensive. There is a note for all charges to be billed to other said person. Other said person turns out to be a highly superior hospital official ( an immediate relative of the patient). The charges are subsequently voided in full.

I am wondering what others think of this. Since the patient is self-pay, I know a price agreement can be made. But the person being billed definitely has our family-inclusive insurance. To me, it does not seem right.

But I am very new, and seem to be the only one raising eyebrows so maybe I am overthinking it?
Please any advice welcome.

Medical Billing and Coding Forum

and this one ICD 10 only

Preoperative diagnosis: Abdominal pain in the setting of prior cholecystectomy
Findings: The esophagus was successfully intubated under direct vision without detailed examination of the pharynx, larynx, and associated structures, and upper GI tract. One stent originating in the biliary tree was emerging from the major papilla. A biliary sphincterotomy had been performed. The sphincterotomy appeared open. One stent was removed from the biliary tree using a snare. A short 0.035 inch Soft Jagwire was passed into the biliary tree. The 12 mm to 15 mm balloon was passed over the guidewire and the bile duct was then deeply cannulated. Contrast was injected. I personally interpreted the bile duct images. There was brisk flow of contrast through the ducts. Image quality was excellent. Contrast extended to the hepatic ducts. A cholecystectomy had been performed. The main bile duct was mildly dilated and diffusely dilated. The largest diameter was 11mm. The lower third of the main bile duct contained one mobile filling defect thought to be a stone, which was small. The biliary tree was swept with a 12 mm balloon and 15 mm balloon starting at the lower third of the main duct and bifurcation. A small amount of biliary debris was swept from the duct. Nothing remained on final occlusion cholangiogram and balloon sweep.

Estimated Blood Loss: Estimated blood loss: none.
Impression: – One stent from the biliary tree was seen in the major papilla and was removed.
– Prior biliary endoscopic sphincterotomy appeared open.
– The entire main bile duct was mildly dilated.
– Choledocholithiasis was found. Complete removal was accomplished by balloon extraction.

Diagnosis:
Calculus of bile duct without cholecystitis or obstruction

Medical Billing and Coding Forum

no drugs administered, is this still MAC?

Per ASA statement of "Position on Monitored Anesthesia Care", During monitored anesthesia care, the anesthesiologist provides or medically directs a number of specific services, including but not limited to:
1. Diagnosis and treatment of clinical problems that occur during the procedure
2. Support of vital functions
3. Administration of sedatives, analgesics, hypnotics, anesthetic agents or other medications as necessary for patient safety
4. Psychological support and physical comfort
5. Provision of other medical services as needed to complete the procedure safely.

There was no anesthetic agent administered.
Does this still qualify for MAC?

Thank you.

Medical Billing and Coding Forum

Preventive or problem-focused visit, this is a different scenario

Not sure how to code this visit. 9 year old patient had a well child visit on 07/30/2018, but would not let the female provider perform the genitourinary exam due to history of sexual abuse. Returned on 08/08/2018 to have this exam performed by a male provider. Male provider also explained puberty and physical changes the patient would be experiencing in the next few years. Does this warrant a preventive visit or problem-focused? Can we code a preventive visit that soon? Can I code a problem focused e/m with Z00.3 and Z62.010. Any thoughts would be greatly appreciated.

Medical Billing and Coding Forum

laparoscopic robotic uterosacral ligament fixation – Need help coding this procedure.

Need help on a procedure –

laparoscopic robotic uterosacral ligament fixation involving suspending the vaginal apex from shortened, plicated uterosacral ligaments in a manner analogous to the vaginal uterosacral ligament fixation.

Everything that I am finding points to using the unspecified procedure 58999. The closest CPT I find is 57283 (colpopexy vaginal, intraperitoneal).

I have a urogyencology office which is looking to utilize this procedure a lot and I need to find the best way to code this. I have never had to bill out an unspecified procedure before and I need guidance of how this is to be done.

Any help/guidance will be greatly appreciated.

Thanks everyone!

Medical Billing and Coding Forum

laparoscopic robotic uterosacral ligament fixation – Need help coding this procedure.

Need help on a procedure –

laparoscopic robotic uterosacral ligament fixation involving suspending the vaginal apex from shortened, plicated uterosacral ligaments in a manner analogous to the vaginal uterosacral ligament fixation.

Everything that I am finding points to using the unspecified procedure 58999. The closest CPT I find is 57283 (colpopexy vaginal, intraperitoneal).

I have a urogyencology office which is looking to utilize this procedure a lot and I need to find the best way to code this. I have never had to bill out an unspecified procedure before and I need guidance of how this is to be done.

Any help/guidance will be greatly appreciated.

Thanks everyone!

Medical Billing and Coding Forum